• We need your support!

    We are currently struggling to cover the operational costs of Xtremepapers, as a result we might have to shut this website down. Please donate if we have helped you and help make a difference in other students' lives!
    Click here to Donate Now (View Announcement)

Mathematics: Post your doubts here!

Messages
1,983
Reaction score
3,044
Points
273
Can the co efficient of friction be greater than 1?
Our teacher said it can't be but in a past paper question the coefficient of friction is 1.62 so m a li'l confused :/
Suchal Riaz
It absolutely can be greater than 1. Coefficient of friction is actually tan of the angle of friction. And tan can be greater than 1.
In 2010 question it's value was 1.62. So it can be greater than 1. There is no reason why it can't be.
 
Messages
3,355
Reaction score
20,175
Points
523
Oct nov 13 varient 32 question 3 and 4 :/ Aly Emran View attachment 39374
Im soo sorry i late but lemme tell u :)
Do it through integration by parts
Remember!!
Take ln x as first function

f= integration symbol

=fLnx*x^-1/2
=lnx*2x^1/2- 2f(x^1/2* x^-1)dx
Its too hard to type in math lang :p
I hope u can now do it from this point :)

Qstn 4 was hard i lost all marks cox of this :/

Do it like dx/dy and dy/dx
And then the product rule will be used :)
Sorry i cant type the long answer :/
Im using mobile :/
 
Messages
722
Reaction score
6,880
Points
503
Im soo sorry i late but lemme tell u :)
Do it through integration by parts
Remember!!
Take ln x as first function

f= integration symbol

=fLnx*x^-1/2
=lnx*2x^1/2- 2f(x^1/2* x^-1)dx
Its too hard to type in math lang :p
I hope u can now do it from this point :)

Qstn 4 was hard i lost all marks cox of this :/

Do it like dx/dy and dy/dx
And then the product rule will be used :)
Sorry i cant type the long answer :/
Im using mobile :/
Oww its okay Alo ....i got it nw !!! :) :D
 
Messages
2,222
Reaction score
4,914
Points
273
It absolutely can be greater than 1. Coefficient of friction is actually tan of the angle of friction. And tan can be greater than 1.
In 2010 question it's value was 1.62. So it can be greater than 1. There is no reason why it can't be.
Yeah I was doing the same paper:D thanks alot :)
 
Top