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Physics: Post your doubts here!

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For Q8, regarding the ball. From X to Y, the ball accelerates uniformly till it reaches point Y, you could say that the weight of the ball is what's making it accelerate. When it passes Y, the ball is now on a horizontal surface, since weight acts vertically, the ball wont accelerate horizontally, so the graph is a straight line.

Now the important thing here is when the ball collides with the wall. Since it collides inelastically, kinetic energy is not conserved completely, this will affect the speed and make the ball travel slowly. They mention in the question, that after the collision the ball comes to rest momentarily somewhere on XY. Since the ball has to reach XY again, and this time with a lower speed, it's obviously going to take longer. Graphs B and D both indicate that it takes the same amount of time, which is not true, since to cover the same distance at a slower speed, will take a lot more time. This leaves us with C and A.

The difference in the two graphs is the steepness of the ends of the graphs. A steeper gradient means the acceleration is greater. If the ball is going to be approaching XY and come to rest, how can the acceleration to roll up be greater than when it was rolling down? This immediately eliminates C, and your answer is A.

--------------------------------------------------

For Q14,
-You're told that the mass of the ruler is 100g, this will act at the halfway point of the ruler since it is a uniform ruler. So 100g acts at 50cm. Your pivot is at the 40cm mark.
That means that 100g acts downwards, 10 cm from the pivot.
-Next you're told that a mass of 20g acts around the pulley. This force is acting up since the string is pulling ruler up, as the weight of the mass acts down. This acts 60cm from the pivot, and acts upwards.
- The next and probably most important part of the question is them asking you where to " suspend " a mass of 50g to " balance " the rule. If the mass is to be suspended from the ruler it is to act downwards. Now the question is do we put it to the right or left of the pivot. To figure that out, we first check what the resultant moment is and in which direction.

That is ( 60 cm * 20g ) - ( 10 cm * 100g ) = 11760 - 9800 = 1960 Nm upwards.

Since the resultant moment is upwards, that means suspending the weight to the left of the pivot would be pointless. This would just make the ruler turn even more in the anti-clockwise direction. So this alone lets us know that the weight is to be placed to the right of the pivot, if we are to balance it.

Now you form your equations, keeping in mind that for the ruler to be in equilibrium, the resultant moment must equal zero.

Moments about Pivot: (100g x 10cm) + ( 50g x ycm ) - (20g x 60cm) = 0
This gives us: 9800 + 490y - 11760 = 0
490y = 1960 Ncm
y = 1960/490 = 4 cm

We now have our distance from the pivot, and since we know that the weight is to be suspended to the right, we add this distance to the position of the pivot.
40 cm + 4 cm = 44 cm, and thus your answer is C.

Hope that helps.
 
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http://maxpapers.com/syllabus-mater...hment/9702_may-june-2011-all-question-papers/

physics, May June 2011 paper 41 question 4 part (i) (ii) along with (c) .. can someone please EXPLAIN THIS QUESTION. ITS REALLY CONFUSING.
and in part (c) they've used the elementary charge but taken "-19" as "19" only .. in fact , all the negative values are taken as positive .. i don't get why.
CAN SOMEONE PLEASE HELP.
THANK YOU.
 
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Need help.

Alright.. so for question 2, you need to find the torque. Torque is force x perpendicular distance between two forces. In that diagram you're already given the distance which is 0.30 m. However, the forces are not perpendicular, So you're going to want to find the vertical components. That is 2 Sin 50.

Now put that stuff into the formula, 2 Sin 50 x 0.30 m = 0.459 Nm. Which rounds up to 0.46 Nm.

---------------
I already explained question 6 above, have a read through it.
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For question 9,

FDADAF.png

Look at the diagram above, what I did was add the tails of each force, to the heads of the other.
You end up with a rhombus. Now the original two forces, the 10 N ones acting 120 degrees apart, act " outwards ". The resultant force will act outwards as well. Hence why I labelled that line running through the middle, R.

Now further inspection of R, should show you that it bisects 120* in half. This leaves 60 degrees on either side. Now that you have two equal angles and two equal sides, this should become more obvious to you :-
Screen Shot 2015-04-06 at 9.45.35 PM.png
With this in mind, the final side will be of magnitude 10N and its counter-part angle will be 60 degrees.

NOTE:- You can tell it bisects in half if you touch up on the laws of a rhombus.

This isn't the only way to approach this question, but it's in my opinion, the easier approach. You could attempt to use a variation of the cosine rule, in which there is a slight difference in the sign usage.

Hope that helped. ^_^
 
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phase-difference-between-points-june2012p12q28-1.png whats wrong if I do it like this? because the answer or the phase diff between these two points is actually 270. And I do understand how, but I don't understand whats wrong in this method?
 
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View attachment 51739 whats wrong if I do it like this? because the answer or the phase diff between these two points is actually 270. And I do understand how, but I don't understand whats wrong in this method?

Each wave cycle is 360 degrees. You cannot just put the degrees where you want, you have to make sure each wave lasts a complete 360 degrees. Like so...

phase-difference-between-points-june2012p12q28-1.png

Hope that made sense :)
 
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PLEASE URGENT HELP.
http://maxpapers.com/syllabus-mater...hment/9702_may-june-2011-all-question-papers/

physics, May June 2011 paper 41 question 4 part (i) (ii) along with (c) .. can someone please EXPLAIN THIS QUESTION. ITS REALLY CONFUSING.
and in part (c) they've used the elementary charge but taken "-19" as "19" only .. in fact , all the negative values are taken as positive .. i don't get why.
CAN SOMEONE PLEASE HELP.
THANK YOU.

anyone?
 
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\
Alright.. so for question 2, you need to find the torque. Torque is force x perpendicular distance between two forces. In that diagram you're already given the distance which is 0.30 m. However, the forces are not perpendicular, So you're going to want to find the vertical components. That is 2 Sin 50.

Now put that stuff into the formula, 2 Sin 50 x 0.30 m = 0.459 Nm. Which rounds up to 0.46 Nm.

---------------
I already explained question 6 above, have a read through it.
---------------
For question 9,

View attachment 51735

Look at the diagram above, what I did was add the tails of each force, to the heads of the other.
You end up with a rhombus. Now the original two forces, the 10 N ones acting 120 degrees apart, act " outwards ". The resultant force will act outwards as well. Hence why I labelled that line running through the middle, R.

Now further inspection of R, should show you that it bisects 120* in half. This leaves 60 degrees on either side. Now that you have two equal angles and two equal sides, this should become more obvious to you :-
View attachment 51736
With this in mind, the final side will be of magnitude 10N and its counter-part angle will be 60 degrees.

NOTE:- You can tell it bisects in half if you touch up on the laws of a rhombus.

This isn't the only way to approach this question, but it's in my opinion, the easier approach. You could attempt to use a variation of the cosine rule, in which there is a slight difference in the sign usage.

Hope that helped. ^_^
Thanks a lot. I got them all. For the last question why can't I use the sine rule to find the unknown vector? I mean I tried that but I'm not getting the right answer.
 
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\

Thanks a lot. I got them all. For the last question why can't I use the sine rule to find the unknown vector? I mean I tried that but I'm not getting the right answer.

It all depends on which direction you consider the resultant force to act.

Screen Shot 2015-04-07 at 7.17.46 PM.png
However, this will
Screen Shot 2015-04-07 at 7.22.41 PM.png
If you find that you can manage calculations in a multiple choice exam, be my guest and use this method ^_^
 
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Ok so.... firstly, you need to look at the directions the forces are acting. BOTH forces are acting inwards onto the particle, as a result of this, the resultant force will also act inwards.

The next step is figuring out the direction in which it acts, you can find this out by attaching the tail of one force to the head of the other.
Screen Shot 2015-04-08 at 11.32.53 PM.png
Then you use your knowledge of vector addition and you would end up with something like this...
Screen Shot 2015-04-08 at 11.33.01 PM.png
and then you move towards something like this,
Screen Shot 2015-04-08 at 11.34.29 PM.png

Now for the second part, to prove that the resultant force is 6.6 N. You use the diagram in which you applied the nose to tail method.
Screen Shot 2015-04-08 at 11.33.01 PM.png
From this you can use the cosine rule, since you have a) two known sides and b) one unknown side with a known angle

R^2 = (2.5)^2 + (7.5)^2 - ( 2 x 7.5 x 2.5 x Cos 60 )
R^2 = 62.5 - 18.75
R^2 = 43.75
R= 6.6143 N

Which rounds up to 6.6 N, since both 2.5N and 7.5N are given to 2 significant figures.

Hope that helped! :)
 
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Hey how do we conver signal voltages to binary numbers?
 

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Also how d we know f it's above or below reference level in 14 part b
Thanks
june /04/6 Qs 14
 

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I want to learn basic concepts of graph. Like when accn is constant, there is uniform velocity, area under graph of vt gives disp, slope of vt gives accn etc etc...
I have exams tommorow. HELP ASAP.
 
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