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C34 Math IAL 16/6 June 2014

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Okay I know why

You need to go back to your CAST diagram

In the ALL quadrant you'll have your related angle i.e. your first solution

But if you think about it, everytime you solve for theta, you look at the other quadrant its in as well right?

Because tan is positive its gonna be in the first and third quadrant, where the solution is pi + the related angle


Soooo it will be pi + (pi - theta) and therefore (2pi - theta)
ahh that makes sense. thanks. btw you know when do the results come out for these exams?
 
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what the......
i think they took the g to that side due to which it became g inverse of 16 thats what i could understand,,,
 
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Hahaah yeah guys that question is ugly...

I understood it though.. after interpreting the markscheme....

You have to get a separate equation for the two liney bits, and then replace the y value in them

Ok you know what, dont listen to me... you guys look at it and figure it out with your friends because thats what i just did with 3 other people and it took us a while lol...

Once you look at the markscheme its so obvious but i would never ever think of that !
 
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f(x) is made of 2 straight lines.
First equation: i.e. from x = - 2 to 2:
(x₂ - x₁)/(x - x₁) = (y₂ - y₁)/(y - y₁)
(2 + 2)/(x + 2) = (0 - 10)/(y - 10)
4/(x + 2) = 10/(10 - y)
10x + 20 = 40 - 4y
4y = - 10x + 20
y = - 2.5x + 5
Haha yeah I figured that out but it took me aaaages i have no idea why :O


I think my head is done in so i cant even think properly when it comes to easy questionsss...

I'm not even making sense anymore.
 
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