We are currently struggling to cover the operational costs of Xtremepapers, as a result we might have to shut this website down. Please donate if we have helped you and help make a difference in other students' lives!
Click here to Donate Now (View Announcement)
Oh, sorry. I mixed this up with another question of the same type so I didn't fully read the question. Disregard that explanation I wrote.
That's alright. Thank you very much.
hey, thanks once again. I did understand question 14. That was very helpful. thank you. Jazakallah. may Allah bless you.Q9)
Initial m = Final m
mv + 0 = 2mx (note: after the bodies stick, their masses combine. Let their combined speed be 'x').
mv = 2mx
x = v/2 (m cancel out)
Since the initial momentum is mv, the final momentum must be the same, so its mv also.
K.E after is given by,
0.5 * (2m) * (v/2)^2
= mv^2/4
So A.
Q10)
Change in momentum = final m - initial m
Since after impact the direction changes, final m is -mu
= -mu - mu
= -2mu
Q14) My advice for these type of questions would be to use some sort of fake value for something which isn't known. Here we can't use a fake value for u or v since we have to find their ratios which is fixed, but we can use a fake value for the height to make calculations easier. One of my friends asked me this earlier, so I drew a diagram - link. Let me know if you don't get anything.
Q31)
Q = I * t
Q = 10 * 1 = 10C
(Note that the area is given for no apparent reason, there's no area in the charge formula).
1 electron = 1.6 * 10^-19 C
x electron = 10C
x = 6.3 * 10^19 electrons.
Q35) Total R = 0.588
Total V = IR = 0.588 * 5 ~2.94
Where the ammeter is, the voltage will be 2.94 and R is 2, so I would be given by V/R = 2.94/2 = 1.47 which is 1.5A to 1 dp.
1/2kx^2 is used 2 find d strain energy and fx is used 2 find d spring constant. But I dunno abt 1/2fx ( maybe the avg spring const or sumtin) sorrybtw can any1 plz explain when we use 1/2 kx^2 and when do we use just 1/2 fx
Oh Ohkayyy.... i got it ...that was so simpleI = V/r so total r is 2 paralal 100 kohm = 50 kohm and plus one series resistor hence total 150 k ohm hence I=6/150 = 40microAmperes now look at junction current is divided equally coz there is equal resistance in both paths so 40/2 = 20 A (A)
hope this helps
yep thats the correct way to do it
i solved a question where they are asking abt da strain energy and i used 1/2 fx and da answer is c0ming ryt :S
pls any1??
Q10)it decreases because a mass is added to it randomly while it was moving and the speed remains the same when the trap door opens and the sand comes because because no external force acts on it
Q15 I WILL TELL U IN A JIFFY
For almost 10 years, the site XtremePapers has been trying very hard to serve its users.
However, we are now struggling to cover its operational costs due to unforeseen circumstances. If we helped you in any way, kindly contribute and be the part of this effort. No act of kindness, no matter how small, is ever wasted.
Click here to Donate Now
